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Kích hoạt tài khoản (Xác nhận thông tin liên hệ) trên violet.vn; Người gửi: Thái Hoài Sơn Ngày gửi: 19h:52' 16-10-2022 Dung lượng: 8.1 MB Hãy thử nhiều lựa chọn khác. Unit 3. My friends. Lesson 5. Skills 1; Unit 3. My friends. Lesson 5.
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Vay Tiền Trả Góp Theo Tháng Chỉ Cần Cmnd Hỗ Trợ Nợ Xấu. Đề thi thử Văn THPT Quốc gia 2021Mời các bạn tham khảo Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2021 môn Văn trường THPT Lý Thái Tổ, Bắc Ninh lần 2 do VnDoc sưu tầm và đăng tải sau đây. Đề thi bao gồm 2 phần đọc hiểu và làm văn. Thí sinh làm đề trong thời gian 120 phút. Đây là tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích cho các em học sinh ôn luyện và thử sức, chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia sắp tới đạt kết quả khảo thêm Bộ đề ôn thi THPT Quốc gia năm 2021 môn Ngữ vănĐề thi thử THPT quốc gia 2021 môn Văn lần 2 trường Lý Thái TổI. Phần đọc-hiểu 3,0 điểmĐọc văn bản sau và trả lời câu hỏiHỡi những bạn trẻ mà tôi yêu mến. Các bạn hoàn toàn có thể sống cuộc sống mà mình mong muốn. Thay vì sống cuộc sống cha mẹ các bạn muốn, cuộc sống mà xã hội cho rằng có tương lai, các bạn hoàn toàn có thể sống cuộc sống mình thực sự muốn sống, cuộc sống mà các bạn cho rằng có ý nghĩa với bản thân mình. Những người xung quanh sẽ ngăn cản bạn, nhưng họ đâu có thể sống thay cuộc sống của bạn? Khi bạn thấy mình yếu lòng và tự hỏi“Thực sự sống như thế cũng được chăng?” hãy mỉm cười và trả lời “Có chứ!” Khi ta muốn đi con đường chưa ai đặt chân lên hoặc ít người biết đến, chuyện những người xung quanh ngăn cản ta là hết sức thường tình. Nhưng chỉ cần bạn quyết tâm tự mình cáng đáng mọi trách nhiệm đi kèm sự lựa chọn của mình thì bạn hoàn toàn có thể làm theo lời trái tim mách bảo và không cần phải quan tâm đến những gì người khác mong sao tất cả các bạn, dù chỉ một phút thôi, cũng có đủ dũng khí để làm chủ, tự nắm lấy tay lái điển khiển cuộc sống của mình, không phải sống cuộc sống chỉ lo đáp lại kỳ vọng của những người xung quanh. Các bạn hãy cố lên!Trích chương “Gửi những bạn trẻ tôi yêu mến”, sách “Yêu những điều không hoàn hảo” – Hae Min ; NXB Nhã Nam năm 2018, trang 131Câu 1. điểm Xác định phương thức biểu đạt chính được sử dụng trong đoạn văn bản 2. điểm Theo lý giải của tác giả, vì sao chúng ta không nên quá để tâm đến những lời ngăn cản của mọi người?Câu 3. 1,0 điểm Em hãy tìm một dẫn chứng về một người dám sống cuộc sống mà mình mong muốn, ngay cả khi cha mẹ, mọi người xung quanh ngăn cản họ. Tóm tắt ngắn gọn câu chuyện của họ trong vòng từ 3 – 4 4. 1,0 điểm Em có đồng tình với quan điểm sau đây của tác giả Chỉ cần bạn quyết tâm tự mình cáng đáng mọi trách nhiệm đi kèm sự lựa chọn của mình thì bạn hoàn toàn có thể làm theo lời trái tim mách bảo và không cần phải quan tâm đến những gì người khác nói không? Vì sao ?II. Phần làm văn 7,0 điểmCâu 1. 2,0 điểmAnh/chị hãy viết đoạn văn ngắn, không quá 200 chữ để trả lời cho câu hỏi “Tại sao chúng ta phải có dũng khí để làm chủ, tự nắm lấy tay lái điều khiển cuộc sống của mình”?Câu 2. điểmPhân tích vẻ đẹp hung bạo của dòng sông Đà qua tùy bút Người lái đò sông Đà của nhà văn Nguyễn án đề thi tốt nghiệp THPT 2021 môn Văn trường Lý Thái Tổ lần 2I. Phần đọc - hiểuCâu 1. Phương thức biểu đạt nghị luậnCâu 2. Lý do chúng ta không nên quá quan tâm đến những ngăn cản của mọi người xung quanh Những người xung quanh sẽ ngăn cản bạn, nhưng họ đâu có thể sống thay cuộc sống của bạn, khi ta muốn đi con đường chưa ai đặt chân lên hoặc ít người biết đến, chuyện những người xung quanh ngăn cản ta là hết sức thường Học sinh lấy được ví dụ về những doanh nhân, danh nhân, nghệ sĩ… dám có bản lĩnh sống cuộc sống mà mình mong muốn/ tấm guong anh Nguyễn Ngọc Mạnh cứu em bé rơi từ tầng 12 và bản lĩnh của anh trước những thị phi từ mạng xã hội quanh sự Tóm tắt ngắn gọn câu chuyện, không quá dài dòng, trả lời được 2 câu hỏi ai? Như thế nào?Câu 4. Học sinh tự do nêu quan điểm, có thể nêu theo 3 hướng- Đồng tình và giải thích được vì sao đồng tình- Phản đối và giải thích được vì sao đồng tình- Vừa đồng tình, vừa phản đối và giải thích được lí do trong mỗi yếu Lưu ý viết quá dài trừ điểmII. Phần làm vănCâu Yêu cầu kĩ năng- Biết cách làm đoạn văn nghị luận xã hội, bố cục rõ ràng, đầy đủ mở đoạn, thân đoạn, kết đoạn- Bài làm có từ 1-2 dẫn chứng cụ thể trong đời sống- Diễn đạt lưu loát; không mắc lỗi chính tả, dùng từ và ngữ Yêu cầu kiến thức- Học sinh trình bày theo suy nghĩ riêng của mình. HS có thể trả lời đồng ý/ không đồng ý nhưng cần có những kiến giải hợp lí, thuyết Gợi ý 1 hướng trả lời những ý cần đạt+ Nguyên nhân khách quan Cuộc sống ngày càng thay đổi, đòi hỏi ta phải thích nghi. Ta chỉ thích nghi được khi ta tự làm chủ cuộc sống của mình. Cha mẹ thường hay kì vọng vào con cái, có xu hướng sống hộ, lo hộ cho con. Ta phải tỉnh táo nhận ra để không có tư duy, thói quen sống ỷ lại, tâm lý trông chờ.+ Nguyên nhân chủ quan Khi ta làm chủ cuộc đời mình, ta mới có thể là con người tự do, được thỏa mãn nhu cầu là chính Yêu cầu kĩ năng Biết cách làm bài văn nghị luận văn học, bố cục rõ ràng, ngôn ngữ diễn đạt lưu loát; không mắc lỗi chính tả, dùng từ và ngữ Yêu cầu kiến thức Học sinh có thể trình bày theo nhiều cách khác nhau, nhưng cần đạt được các yêu cầu về kiến thức sau đâyI. Mở bài Giới thiệu được tác phẩm Người lái đò sông Đà Nguyễn Tuân và trích dẫn yêu cầu đềII. Thân bàiKhái quát về hình tượng sông Đà được xây dựng với 2 cực tính cách đối lập hung bao – trữ tình1. Phân tích tính cách hung bạo của sông Đà- hung bạo của vách đá- hung bạo của mặt ghềnh- hung bạo của những hút nước trên sông- hung bạo của âm thanh thác nước- hung bạo của thạch trận sông Đà2. Đánh giá nghệ thuật của nhà văn- Về nội dung cái nhìn độc đáo về sông Đà, am hiểu sâu sắc nhiều lĩnh vực đời sống, giao thông, quân sự, thể thao- Về nghệ thuật Phong cách độc đáo của nhà văn+ hành văn linh hoạt, tài hoa+ nghệ thuật nhân cách hóa, so sánh đặc sắc, liên tưởng độc đáoIII. Kết bài- Khẳng định giá trị của tác phẩm- Khái quát về tình yêu quê hương, đất nước của nhà văn.............................Trên đây vừa giới thiệu tới bạn đọc Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2021 môn Văn trường THPT Lý Thái Tổ, Bắc Ninh lần 2. Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo thêm các môn Toán 12, Tiếng Anh 12, đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12, đề thi học kì 2 lớp 12... được cập nhật liên tục trên
Ngày đăng 22/02/2021, 1144 Để đạt kết quả cao trong kì thi sắp tới, các em có thể tham khảo và tải về Đề thi thử tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Lý Thái Tổ Lần 1 được chia sẻ dưới đây để có thêm tư liệu ôn tập, luyện tập giải đề thi toán nhanh và chính xác giúp các em tự tin đạt điểm cao trong kì thi này. Chúc các em thi tốt! SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO TRƯỜNG TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG LÝ THÁI TỔ Mã đề thi 896 ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN Tên môn Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài 60 phút; 50 câu trắc nghiệm Thí sinh khơng sử dụng tài liệu Họ, tên thí sinh Số báo danh Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair sentences in the following questions from to Question 1 Beef contains vitamins Generally, fish contains almost the same vitamins as beef A The vitamins content of fish may be considered in general as similar to beef B Generally, beef and fish may be considered to be a combination of vitamin content C The vitamins content of beef is generally considered to come from fish D What vitamin fish contains may be considered in general to be made from beef Question 2 The man was shot in the bank robbery The doctors are operating on him A The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery B The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery C The man was shot in the bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him D The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from to Today, there are 600 million cars in the world They may seem like a lot However, there are over million people on our planet Most of the world’s population uses public transportation to get around The number of people using public transportation continues to rise Subway systems worldwide carry 155 million passengers each day That’s more than 30 times the number carried by all the world’s airplanes Every day in Tokyo passengers take more than 40 million rides on public transportation Yet many people see public transportation as a depressing experience’, says author Taras Gresco They say it is slow, crowded, or too expensive In fact , Gresco says, it is actually faster, more comfortable and cheaper’ than driving a car Like millions of people, Taras Gresco is a straphanger’ - a person who rides public transportation In his book straphanger Saving Our Cities and Ourselves from the Automobile, Gresco describe the benefits of public transportation Firstly, it is better for the environment When people use public transportation, they use less fuel Twenty people on one bus use much less fuel than 20 people in 20 cars Fewer cars mean less pollution and cleaner air Using public transportation can be good for your health in other ways It can even help you lose weight In one study, a group of people took public transportation every day for six months Each day they walked to a bus stop or train station In six months, each person lost an average of six pounds almost three kilograms Taking public transportation has another benefit, says Gresco It helps people become part of their community When you are alone in your car, you don’t talk to anyone One Tokyo straphanger told Gresco, “To use public transport is to know how to cooperate with other people,’ It teaches you how to behave in a public space’ So, public transportation is more than a way to get to work or school It can help lead to cleaner cities It may also lead to a healthier and more cooperative world population Question 3 According to the passage, the number of people travelling by planes each day is about A 185 million B 20 million C 125 million D million Question 4 The word it” in the passage refers to A driving a car B author Taras Gresco C depressing experiece D public transportation Trang Question 5 What is not true about Taras Gresco according to the reading passage? A Taras Gresco often travels by public transportation, especially the bus B Taras Gresco wrote a book about the benefits of public transportation C Taras Gresco finds public transportation beneficial for both the cities and the users D Taras Gresco launched a campaign to encourage people to use the public transportation Question 6 Which of the following is mentioned as a benefit for a public transportation rider? A He or she will be able to learn how to ride a means of public transportation B He or she will have a good chance to make more friends with the different people C He or she will have a good chance to enjoy the natural landscape D He or she will know how to behave in public places and cooperate with others Question 7 Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as the one that benefits from the public transportation? A the environment B the car driver C the city D the bus rider Question 8 How does the environment benefit from people’s use of the public transportation ? A Buses and trains not only conserve energy but also save public transportation B The smaller number of cars sold helps the automobile industry save the environment substantially C Subways use renewable energy sources instead of the fossil fuels, making the environment cleaner D Fewer people using private transportation means less fuel used, hence cleaner environment Question 9 Which of the following can be the best title of the reading passage? A Public Transportation - a way to Loose Weight B Public Transportation _ We all Benefit C public transportation - Cleaner – Cities D Public transportation - to Save the Environment Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 10 to 12 Question 10 More research is needed to find out if acupuncture is helped with other side effects such as pain, anxiety or shortness of breath A is needed B such as C shortness D is helped Question 11 ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide opportunities for its members A its B provide C aims at D economic growth Question 12 She complained that her husband never paid her any complements anymore A any complements B never C anymore D complained Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 13 to 15 Question 13 They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution A It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels B Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution C Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution D It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution Question 14 “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager A The manager promised to be very open-minded B The manager admitted not having been very open-minded C The manager denied having been very open-minded D The manager refused to have been very open-minded Question 15 Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper A Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper Trang B Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper C Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper D Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 16 to 30 Question 16 - “Are you thinking of flying business class?” - “ ” A No, I’d like an aisle seat B No, I’m just on business C No, economy D I’m flying there to attend a party Question 17 If you watch this film, you _ about the cultures of Southeast Asian countries A learned B would learn C will learn D were learning Question 18 Paul noticed a job advertisement while he _ along the street A walked B was walking C had walked D would walk Question 19 Solar energy is not widely used _ it is friendly to the environment A in spite of B because of C since D although Question 20 The sign warns people _ the dangers of swimming in this river A with B about C from D to Question 21 _, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there A On arrival at the party B They had arrived at the party C To have attended the party D Just attended the party Question 22 Drinking too much alcohol is said to _ harm to our health A lead B take C D make Question 23 At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a _ of completion A diploma B certificate C qualification D degree Question 24 The _ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great concern to the government A intensively B redundantly C excessively D marginally Question 25 Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to _ A possibility B opportunity C impossible D mistake Question 26 The woman _when the police told her that her son had died A broke in B broke away C broke down D broke into Question 27 _, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes A As intelligent the boy was B Intelligent as the boy was C As the boy was intelligent D Intelligent as was the boy Question 28 My friend always dreams of having _ A a small red sleeping bag B red sleeping small a bag C small a bag red sleeping D a bad small red sleeping Question 29 David graddol, a British linguist, believes that English _80% of computer- based communication in the 1990s A accounted for B answered for C made over D took up Question 30 _every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition A When he won B Having won C On winning D Winning Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from from 31 to 35 Urbanization programs are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in densely 31 regions with limited land and resources It is the natural outcome of economic development and industrialization It has brought a lot of benefits to our society However, it also 32 various Trang problems for local authorities and town planners in the process of maintaining sustainable urbanization, especially in developing countries When too many people cram into a small area, urban infrastructure can't be effective There will be a 33 of livable housing, energy and water supply This will create overcrowded urban districts with no proper facilities Currently, fast urbanization is taking place predominantly in developing countries where sustainable urbanization has little relevance to people's lives Their houses are just shabby slums with poor sanitation Their children only manage to get basic education Hence, the struggle for 34 is their first priority rather than anything else Only when the quality of their existence is improved, can they seek 35 other high values in their life Question 31 A numerous B crowed C populated D popular Question 32 A offers B imposes C leads D poses Question 33 A appearance B plenty C lack D loss Question 34 A survive B survival C survived D survivor Question 35 A on B with C for D about Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 36 to 37 Question 36 A liberty B final C reliable D revival Question 37 A influenced B raised C introduced D developed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges from 38 to 39 Question 38 John " You're already leaving? The ball is only starting." - Peter " But it's very late, so _." A It's great fun, thanks B Have a good day C Goodbye for now D Take care Question 39 John "Why don't we go to a baseball game?" - Jimmy" " A I'd rather go to the art gallery B No, thanks I'd like to sit here C It's good to play baseball D No, I don't Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 40 to 44 The word robot first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek In the play, a man makes a machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing its owner In the 1940s, the American science fiction writer Isaac Asimov wrote a series of stories about robots and invented the term robotics, the science of robots Meanwhile, in the real world, the first robots were developed by an engineer, Joseph F Engelberger, and an inventor, George C Devol Together they started Unimation, a manufacturing company that produces the first real robot in 1961, called the Unimate Robots of this type were installed at a General Motors automobile plant and proved to be a success They worked reliably and saved money for General Motors, so other companies were soon acquiring robots as well These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in science fiction films In fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans They were simply pieces of computer-controlled machinery, with metal “arms” or “hands” Since they were made of metal, they could perform certain jobs that were difficult or dangerous for humans, particularly jobs that involve high heat And since robots were tireless and never got hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful for tasks that would be tiring or boring for humans Industrial robots have been improved over the years, and today they are used in many factories around the world Though the use of robots has meant the loss of some jobs, at the same time other jobs have been created in the design, development, and production of the robots Rise of the Robots, Silicon Valley Entrepreneur, Martin Ford, 1988 Question 40 What is Unimation? A It’s the producer of the first robot B It’s the name of a robot inventor C It’s the name of a robot D It’s a robot making program Question 41 What can be said about Karel Capek? Trang A He was the first to create the word “robot” B He is an American writer C He made a robot D He made a robot in order to kill a person Question 42 Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots? A They are not distracted B They are tiring C They can jobs involving high heat D They don’t need food Question 43 What are industrial robots like? A They behave like humans B They controlled machinery C They look like humans D They are computer-controlled machines Question 44 When did the word “robot” appear? A in the 1920s B in the 40s C in the 19th century D in the 60s Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following questions from 45 to 46 Question 45 The aboriginal people of Australia are experts at survival in an environment with scanty resources A ordinary B natural C limited D abundant Question 46 Sometimes , in order to get things done, you have to take the initiative A sacrifice for others B make the last decision C make important changes D raise the first idea Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the bolded part in each of the following questions from 47 to 48 Question 47 He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again A wasn’t happy B didn’t care C showed surprise D didn’t want to see Question 48 Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have academic or personal problems A sympathize B please C satisfy D discourage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 49 to 50 Question 49 A open B answer C cartoon D paper Question 50 A knowledgeableB prosperity C certificate D development - - HẾT -ĐÁP ÁN 10 A B D D D D C D B D 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 B A D B A C C B D B 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A C B C B C B A A B 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C D C B C A B C A A 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 A B D A C D C D C A Trang ... Question 50 A knowledgeableB prosperity C certificate D development - - HẾT -? ?ÁP ÁN 10 A B D D D D C D B D 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 B A D B A C C B D B 21 22 23... - “Are you thinking of flying business class?” - “ ” A No, I’d like an aisle seat B No, I’m just on business C No, economy D I’m flying there to attend a party Question 17 If you watch this... been very open-minded,” said the manager A The manager promised to be very open-minded B The manager admitted not having been very open-minded C The manager denied having been very open-minded D - Xem thêm -Xem thêm Đề thi thử tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Lý Thái Tổ Lần 1,
When you’re learning something, a test is considered a part of the learning process. Taking a test shows your current skills and improvements you’ve made in that topic; at the same time, it reveals areas that still need improvement. For Thai learners, taking a Thai competency test is a good idea. The most popular Thai language proficiency test is the CU-TFL. Thus, in this lesson, we’ll give you practical information about this Thai language competency test, including details about each part and when, where, and how to register to take the test. Of course, we’ll also provide you with some tips on how to pass this Thai exam. Let’s get started. Table of Contents General Information About the CU-TFL A Breakdown of Each Section Tips on Preparing for a Thai Proficiency Exam Conclusion 1. General Information About the CU-TFL If you want to work in Thailand, you’re in luck! Aside from some professional jobs, most of the jobs available for foreigners don’t require many Thai language skills. Jobs for foreigners in Thailand are normally in environments where workers can speak English. Still, you have a life outside of work, which inevitably requires you to have basic knowledge of the Thai language. As mentioned above, testing your Thai skills enables you to see how much you know so you can continue improving. The most common Thai language exam for foreigners is the CU-TFL, which stands for “The Chulalongkorn University Proficiency Test of Thai as a Foreign Language.” It’s the most popular Thai language assessment test. For your information, Chulalongkorn University is one of the top three universities in Thailand. In a way, the university’s high status makes the test more reputable. The test is taken at The Sirindhorn Thai Language Institute. Applicants must contact the institute to schedule the test date at least two weeks in advance before filling out the online application. Then, the applicant will receive the bill payment slip, and must make a payment at least three days prior to the test date. The CU-TFL test has four sections listening, reading, writing, and speaking. This test classifies the examinee into one of five groups distinguished, superior, advanced, intermediate, and novice. In the following sections, we’ll provide you with a complete guide on this Thai language proficiency exam. 2. A Breakdown of Each Section 1- Listening Section Duration 60 minutes Number of questions 50 multiple-choice questionsPart 1 1-3 announcements and short articlesPart 2 2-3 announcements and medium-length articlesPart 3 2-3 news excerpts, event descriptions, and documentariesPart 4 1-2 medium-length conversations about opinion expression or an interview of two peoplePart 5 1 long conversation about opinion expression or an interview of three people Skills and competencies needed Be able to understand short conversations, announcements, interviews, or advertisementsBe able to comprehend and summarize a storyBe able to analyze a story Instructions You’ll get three sets of paper the test, a sheet to mark your answers, and paper for the test begins, you’ll hear the explanation, instructions, and be given a sample question. Once the test begins, you’ll hear a conversation or story, followed by questions and four choices. You’ll hear the story/conversation, questions, and choices only once. 2- Reading Section Duration 60 minutes Number of questions 50 multiple-choice questionsPart 1 1-3 signs and short announcementsPart 2 2-3 medium-length announcements Part 3 2-3 news excerpts, event descriptions, medium-length documentaries, or academic articlesPart 4 1-2 conversations about opinion expression Part 5 1 news critique, editorial, or academic article Skills and competencies needed Be able to understand a story, as well as punctuation and numbers used in daily lifeBe able to understand the reference in a storyBe able to comprehend and summarize a storyBe able to analyze a storyBe able to understand the story and analyze it based on knowledge of Thai society and culture Instructions You’ll get two sets of paper the test and the answer no time limit for each part, so you can allocate time for the five parts yourself. 3- Writing Section Duration 60 minutes Number of questions Write one essay to express your opinion on a given topic. Skills and competencies needed Be able to understand a story, as well as punctuation and numbers used in daily lifeBe able to write as requested Be able to spell and punctuate, use vocabulary and sentence structure, and choose the appropriate language levelKnow the types of articles and their structuresBe able to use proper written Thai with the audience in mindBe able to use daily-life idioms Instructions You’ll get two sets of paper the test and the answer sheet. 4- Speaking Section Duration 40 minutes Number of questions An unknown number of questions, divided into three partsPart 1 Have conversations with the testerPart 2 Report and express your opinion speak alone Part 3 Interview the tester and summarize information Skills and competencies needed Be able to pronounce correctly, choose the proper words, idioms, and sentence structures, and respond to the examinerBe able to use the right language level for the situation and audienceBe able to have a fluent conversation Be able to express your opinion on various topicsBe able to ask for information about the assigned topicBe able to summarize information Instructions You will be recorded during the will be only one applicant per tester is an educated Thai person who uses Thai as their native language. 3. Tips on Preparing for a Thai Proficiency Exam To do well on any Thai language exam, you need to practice a lot! Below, we’ve outlined a few ways you can do this effectively. 1 – Read signs, announcements, news excerpts, and articles in Thai. If you live in Thailand, pay attention to the signs, announcements, snippets of news, and articles around you. These are a part of everyday life in Thailand, so they’ll definitely be included on the test. We suggest that whenever you see a sign, you learn what it means and think about where else you might find it. This will significantly help you in the reading and listening sections. 2 – Watch a variety of shows and dramas in Thai. To improve your listening and speaking skills, you need to be able to understand how Thais speak in daily life. One of the best ways to do so is to watch a variety of Thai shows and dramas. This is a fun activity that allows you to watch media that fits your interests! You’ll be able to hear the accent of native Thai speakers and become more familiar with Thai sentence structure. This will, in turn, help you improve your own speaking skills. You’ll also get to know more about Thai society and culture, which will indirectly help you understand more about Thai people, leading to a better test score. Nowadays, you can watch a variety of shows and dramas online on YouTube, on live TV, on Thai Netflix, and more. 3 – Study the basic Thai social norms, and learn about the society and culture. To do well on your Thai competency test, you need to understand some of the Thai social norms, as well as the society and culture. You can learn about these topics in various ways, such as watching shows like we mentioned above, talking to Thai people, and reading related books. 4 -Talk to Thai people about various topics. As mentioned above, talking to Thai people can help you learn about Thai social norms, society, and culture. But the benefits don’t end there! Talking to Thai people will help you learn how to express your opinions more fluently; this will give you a huge advantage when it comes time for the speaking portion of the test. Also, the more you make conversation, the better your speaking and listening skills will become. 5 – Practice writing about different topics in Thai. To do well in the writing section, you have to practice a lot. On the test, you’ll be asked to write one article that expresses your opinion on a given topic, so you need to practice writing about various topics. In addition, you’ll need to learn related vocabulary and sentence structures to write a good essay. 6 – Do a lot of test exercises. Last but not least, you need to do a lot of test exercises. Like with every other test, practicing helps you do better. By doing a CU-TFL test sample, you’ll become more familiar with the questions, work on allocating your time better, and finish the real test more efficiently. You can buy a CU-TFL book to do Thai language practice tests, or download the test example from the manual. 4. Conclusion We hope that after reading this complete guide to the CU-TFL Thai language proficiency test, you have a better idea of how to pass it with flying colors. Please let us know your thoughts about the CU-TFL in the comments, and let us know if you have any questions. And don’t forget to check out other interesting lessons on We have tons of lessons on the Thai language, culture, and traditions that you should take a look at! We recommend our lessons about the New Year resolutions of Thai people and talking about family in Thai.
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